NDA (I) Exam 2014 – Solved (Part II)

The following six (6) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q 26. Statement I: Minerals are formed by slow cooling of the magma.
Statement II: Very small crystals are formed when lava cools quickly on the surface.
Ans : (D)

Q 27. Statement I: The Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh receives copious snowfall during winter.
Statement II: The Kullu Valley receives moisture-bearing wind of the Western Disturbances during winter.
Ans : (C)

Q 28. Statement I: The hills with dense vegetation cover do not experience heavy soil erosion.
Statement II: The vegetation cover helps infiltration of rainwater and binding of soils.
Ans : (A)

Q 29. Statement I: The decrease of air temperature with increasing altitudes in the atmosphere is called the vertical temperature gradient.
Statement II: In Troposphere, air temperature decreases with increasing altitude due to radiation from the Earth.
Ans : (A)

Q 30. Statement I: Chemical weathering processes are found more active in hot and humid environment.
Statement II: High temperature and rainfall help in the process of decomposition of rocks.
Ans : (C)

Q 31. Statement I: The acceleration due to gravity decreases with increase in height from the surface of the Earth.
Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the centre of the Earth.
Ans : (A)

Q 32. The Number of valence electrons in the O²- ion is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Ans : (C)

 Q 33. Within an animal cell, the most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm is
(A) Sodium and potassium salt
(B) Water
(C) Iron
(D) Phosphate
Ans : (A)

Q 34. Two conducting wires A and B are made of same material. If the length of B is twice that of A and the radius of circular cross-section of A is twice that of B, then their resistances R_A and R_B are in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 1 : 4
Ans : (B)

Q 35. Consider the following statements :
A real image
1. can be formed on a screen
2. is always magnified and inverted

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

Q 36. Which one of the following is the correct electronic configuration of Chlorine?
(A) 2, 7, 8
(B) 2, 8, 7
(C) 2, 8, 8
(D) 7, 8, 2
Ans : (B)

Q 37. In honey, which one among the following sugars predominates?
(A) Sucrose
(B) Fructose
(C) Galactose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (B)

Q 38. During short-circuiting, the current flowing in the electrical circuit
(A) Reduces substantially
(B) Does not change
(C) Increases instantaneously
(D) Varies continuously
Ans : (C)

Q 39. The number of aluminium ions present in 54g aluminium (atomic weight 27) is
(A) 2
(B) 18
(C) 1.1 x 10²⁴
(D) 1.2 x 10²⁴
Ans : (D)

Q 40. What is 'Breakbone Fever' most commonly known as?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Rhinitis
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Dengue
Ans : (D)

Q 41. Van de Graaff generator is used for
(A) Accelerating charged particles
(B) Generating large currents
(C) Generating electric field
(D) Generating high-frequency voltage
Ans : (D)

Q 42. The most stable form of carbon is
(A) Diamond
(B) Graphite
(C) Fullerene
(D) Coal
Ans : (B)

Q 43. Which one among the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Syphilis
(B) Gonorrhea
(C) Scurvy
(D) Hepatitis B
Ans : (C)

Q 44. The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused by
(A) Aphelion (farthest) and perihelion (nearest) positions of the Earth from the Sun during the annual revolution
(B) Rotation of the Earth on its axis
(C) Variation in solar isolation
(D) Revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis
Ans : (D)

Q 45. The latest discovered state of matter is
(A) Solid
(B) Bose-Einstein condensate
(C) Plasma
(D) Liquid
Ans : ()

Q 46. Which of the following pairs represents isoelectronic ions?
(A) Na⁺, K⁺
(B) K⁺, Mg²⁺
(C) Mg²⁺, Ca²⁺
(D) Ca²⁺, S^2-
Ans : (B)

Q 47. After diagnosis of disease in a person, the doctor advises the patient iron and folic acid tablets. The person is suffering from
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Anaemia
(C) Goitre
(D) Protein-energy malnutrition
Ans : (B)

Q 48. Which one among the following is the coral group of islands of India?
(A) Andaman
(B) Nicobar
(C) Minicoy
(D) Lakshadweep
Ans : (D)

Q 49. Bernoulli's principle is based on which one among the following laws?
(A) Conversion of mass
(B) Conversion of momentum
(C) Conversion of angular momentum
(D) Conversion of energy
Ans : (D)

Q 50.

The displacement (x)-time (t) graph given above approximately represents the motion of a
(A) Simple pendulum placed in vacuum
(B) Simple pendulum immersed in water
(C) Simple pendulum placed in outer space
(D) Point mass moving in air
Ans : (B)

NDA (I) Exam 2014 – Solved (Part I)

NDA (I) Exam 2014 – Solved (Part I)

 General Ability Test

Q 1. Which of the following statements about the Progresive Writerss Association, which created a generation of creative people, is/are correct?
1. It thought critically about the poverty and hunger of the Indian people.
2. It brought out the positive developments of colonialism.
3. Its creative pursuits began with a critical evaluation of Gandhian politics.
4. It planned India's development model.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (A)

Q 2. E. V. Ramaswami Naicker was associated with
1. Reforming Brahminism
2. The Self-Respect Movement
3. The Low Caste Movement
4. The Communist Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans : (D)

Q 3. Consider the following statements about 'Param Vir Chakra'
1. It is the highest peacetime gallantry award.
2. It is the replacement of British Victoria Cross.
3. It can be awarded to civilians.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

Q 4. Gandhiji's 'Harijan Campaign' sought to
1. Attack caste system as a whole
2. Open wells, roads, temples, etc., to Harijans
3. Encourage social work among Harijans

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only
Ans : (B)

Q 5. The Salt Satyagraha called by Mahatma Gandhi saw the
1. Violation of salt laws along coastal India
2. Participation of women
3. Upward swing when it came to the working class joining in

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans : (D)

Q 6. What was the code name for the Indian Air Force operations during the Kargil Conflict of 1999?
(A) Operation Vijay
(B) Operation Meghdoot
(C) Operation Indradhanush
(D) Operation Safed Sagar
Ans : (D)

Q 7. During the Civil Disobedience Movement, tribals in Chota Nagpur
1. Gave up opium consumption
2. Wore Khadi
3. Gave up drinking liquor and eating meat

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans : (C)

Q 8. Which of the following was/were the new feature/features visible in the Quit India Movement (1942)?
1. Large-scale movements in some of the industrial areas
2. Large-scale mass involvement in some of the Princely States
3. Increase in the activities of the Kisan Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
Ans : (C)

Q 9. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission report submitted recently, among others, contained which of the following proposals?
1. All regulators will have an empowered board, the role of each of the member has been defined.
2. The Commission envisages an important process of judicial review of the regulations.
3. The draft code does not mention about executive powers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

Q 10. The Swadeshi Movement evoked serious response in
(A) Madras and Hyderabad
(B) Bengal and Maharashtra
(C) Bihar and Orissa
(D) The Princely States
Ans : (B)

 Q 11. Who among the following was associated with the Gudem-Rampa Rebellion?
(A) Birsa Munda
(B) Kushal Konwar
(C) Alluri Sitarama Raju
(D) Mangal Pandey
Ans : (C)

Q 12. The Bali Ministerial Declaration and the ministerial decisions that were adopted on 7th December, 2013 contained several issues. Which of the following are related to the Least-Developed Countries?
1. Preferential Rules of Origin for Least-Developed Countries
2. Operationalization of the Waiver Concerning Preferential Treatment to Services
3. Duty-Free and Quota-Free (DFQF) Market Access for Least-Developed Countries

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans : (A)

Q 13. The 'Doctrine of Lapse' was a policy that aimed to
(A) Control the rebellions in the Princely States
(B) Extend the military strength of the British
(C) Regulate the landlords
(D) Extend the territorial boundaries of the English East India Company
Ans : (D)

Q 14. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 introduced
(A) Peasant rights
(B) Bourgeois property rights in land to Zamindars
(C) Shipping rights for the English East India Company
(D) Rights for women to have property rights
Ans : (B)

Q 15. Which of the following is/are true relating to the Lokpal Bill, 2013, which was assented to by the President on 1st January, 2014?
1. It provides for creation of anti-graft ombudsman to investigate corruption charges against public functionaries including the Prime Minister, Ministers and Members of the Parliament.
2. The Bill makes it incumbent upon States to make within a year their own law for setting up Lokayuktas on the lines of the Lokpal Bill.
3. States are free not to set up Lokayuktas, if they do not so desire.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

Q 16. Who among the following was associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Laxmi Sehgal
Ans : (C)

Q 17. The Indian National Army was organized to fight against :
(A) Germany and Japan
(B) The British in India
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)

Q 18. Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson Mandela?
1. He was the first President of South Africa.
2. Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island.
3. Mandela become the President in 1990 after his release from the prison.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

Q 19. The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn after the :
(A) First World War
(B) Chauri-Chaura Incident
(C) Bardoli Satyagraha
(D) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Ans : (B)

Q 20. Which of the following books was written by B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) The Discovery of India
(B) My Life
(C) Buddha or Karl Marx
(D) Hind Swaraj
Ans : (C)

Q 21. Which of the following is/are correct relating to the North-Eastern Region Community Resource Management Project for upland areas?
1. It is a livelihood and rural development project aimed to transform the lives of the poor and marginalized tribal families in North-East India.
2. This project is imitated exclusively by the North-Eastern Council.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

Q 22. Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty as guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action.
3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans : (C)

Q 23. Consider the following statements :
1. 'SAMARTH 2014', a national festival for showcasing the abilities of persons with disabilities, was organized recently in New Delhi by the Ministry of Culture.
2. India is a party to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

Q 24. Consider the following statements about 'Sahayog Kaijin' :
1. It is a joint exercise of the Coast Guards on India and Japan
2. Its 13th edition was held recently off Chennai Port.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

Q 25. Consider the following statements about Grand Slam Tennis tournaments :
1. There are four grand slam annual tennis tournaments.
2. The first grand slam of a year is the US Open.
3. The Australian and the US tournaments are played on grass court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans : (C)

NDA (I) Exam 2014 – Solved (Part II)

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part III

Q 41. Which of following chemicals is a food preservative ?
(A) Sodium Carbonate
(B) Sodium Bicarbonate
(C) Sodiam Benzoate
(D) Sodium Thiosulphate
Ans : (C)

Q 42. Which of following rivers drains into Rann of Kutch ?
(A) Luni
(B) Mahi
(C) Narmada
(D) Sabarmati
Ans : (A)

Q 43. The Edible part of potato is :
(A) Bud
(B) Fruit
(C) Root
(D) Stem
Ans : (C)

Q 44. The Bering Strait Separates :
(A) France and United Kingdom
(B) Indonesia and Malaysia
(C) India and Sri Lanka
(D) U.S.A. and Russian Federation
Ans : (D)

Q 45. What is the no. of states surrounding Chhatisgarh ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Ans : (D)

Q 46. Biodiversity is highest in :
(A) Alpine meadows
(B) Coniferous forests
(C) Deciduous monsoon forests
(D) Wet evergreen equatorial forests
Ans : (D)

Q 47. Which of following countries is not a part of Horn of Africa ?
(A) Eritrea
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Rwanda
(D) Somalia
Ans : (C)

Q 48. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere :
1. Soot
2. Sulfur hexafluoride
3.Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

Q 49. The deflection of planetary wind is caused by the :
(A) Latitudinal variation in Temperature
(B) Revolution of the Earth
(C) Rotation of the Earth
(D) Differences in the atmospheric pressure
Ans : (C)

Q 50. Consider the following Statements :
1. LED-based lamps do not contain mercury
2. LED-based lamps cannot be used as street lights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

Q 51. Consider the following pairs :
    Technique/Technology                           Application/Use
1. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer                Reproductive Cloning
2. DNA sequencing                                     Forensic tests
3. Polymerase Chain Reaction                    Manufacture of Biodegradable Plastics
Which of above pairs are correctly matched
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

Q 52. Which of the following geographical/natural regions is declared "World Heritage Site" ?
(A) Spiti Valley
(B) Maikal hills
(C) Shivalik hills
(D) Western Ghats
Ans : (D)

Q 53. Which one of following is Spread over three States ?
(A) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(B) National Chambal Sanctuary
(C) Eravikulam National Park
(D) Bandavgarh National Park
Ans : (B) [Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Utter Pradesh]

Q 54. Which one of the following became extinct in India a few decades ago and is proposed to be re-introduced ?
(A) Cheetah
(B) Gharial
(C) Salt water crocodile
(D) Snow leopard
Ans : (A)

Q 55. Consider the following Pairs :
   Board                                                 Location
1. Coffee board                                      Bengaluru
2. Tea Board                                           Guwahati
3. Tobacco Board                                   Hyderabad
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

Q 56. India is a member of  :
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
2. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
3. Organization for Economic Corporation and Development (OECD)
4. World Trade Organization (WTO)
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

Q 57. Which of the following are sources of methane, a greenhouse gas ?
1. Domestic animals
2. Coal mining
3. Wetlands
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

Q 58. At which one of following places are cave paintings of prehistoric times found ?
(A) Amarkantak
(B) Badami
(C) Bhimbetka
(D) Nasik
Ans : (C)

Q 59. Duodenum in human body is a part of :
(A) Digestive system
(B) Excretory system
(C) Reproductive system
(D) Respiratory System
Ans : (A)

Q 60. Which one of the following is a viral disease ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Influenza
(C) Malaria
(D) Typhoid
Ans : (B)

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part I

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part II

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part II

Q 21. Who of following is/are appointed by President of India ?
1. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. The Chief Justice of India
3. The Speaker of Lok sabha

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1,2,3
Ans : (B)

Q 22. The Strait, which connects the Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal is known as :
(A) Palk
(B) Gibraltor
(C) Hormuz
(D) Malakka
Ans : (A)

Q 23. Which of following is the correct sequence of the various stages in the food chain ?
(A) Grasshoppers, Snakes, Frogs, Vultures
(B) Grasshoppers, Frogs, Snakes,Vultures
(C) Frogs, Vultures, Snakes, Grasshoppers
(D) Vultures, Snakes, Grasshoppers, Frogs
Ans : (B)

Q 24. Which of the following is the cell organelle that is referred to as the 'Suicide Bag' for containing enzymes that can break down cell components or even the whole cell ?
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mesosome
(C) Phagosome
(D) Ribosome
Ans : (A)

Q 25. "Fracking Technology" frequently in news, is related to: 
(A) Food Processing
(B) Beverage Industry
(C) Shale Gas Production
(D) Bauxite Extraction
Ans : (C)

Q 26. Consider the following : 
1. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
2. Mudumalai Wildlife Santuary
3. Sultanpur National Park
Which of the above is/are wetlands ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

Q 27. Which of following is longest National highway ?
(A) NH 4
(B) NH 5
(C) NH 6
(D) NH 7
Ans : (D)

Q 28. Which one of the following state has the largest coastline ?
(A) Andhra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)

Q 29. The rainiest place in India is located in :
(A)  J& K
(B) Sikkim
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
Ans : (D)

Q 30. An ecosystem comprises :
(A) Only trees, shrubs and herbs in an area
(B) Only animals in an area
(C) All plants and animals in an area
(D) All living and non-living things in an area
Ans : (D)

Q 31. Nagarjunsagar Dam is Located on the river :
(A) Krishna
(B) Tungbhadra
(C) Kaveri
(D) Godavari
Ans : (A)

Q 32. Cashew tree, introduced by the Portuuese in India in the 16th century, was brought from :
(A) USA
(B) South America
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

Q 33. Which of following places is known for Salt Water Crocodiles ?
(A) Bhitarkanika
(B) Machilipatnam
(C) Pulicat Lake
(D) Rann of Kutch
Ans : (A)

Q 34. The last stronghold of Indian Lions in their natural habitat is located in :
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)

Q 35. The decomposition and recycling of organic matter from dead organisms is made possible to a large extent by :
(A) Bacteria
(B) Protozoa
(C) Virus
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

Q 36. In crustaceans (e.g.shrimp, cray-fish, lobster), the metallic base of respiratory pigment is :
(A) Magnesium
(B) Iron
(C) Copper
(D) Lithium
Ans : (C)

Q 37. Crimean pennisula thrusts into :
(A) Black sea
(B) Caspian sea
(C) Mediterranian Sea
(D) White sea
Ans : (A)

Q 38. Circadian rhythm is related to :
(A) Demography
(B) Economic growth
(C) Biological clock
(D) Climate of a region
Ans : (C)

Q 39. The term 'Bitcoin', frequently in the news, is mentioned in context of :
(A) Hologram stickers
(B) Technology of improving the security features of paper currency
(C) Peer to peer digital currency
(D) Near field communication technology
Ans : (C)

Q 40. Consider the following pairs :   
    Disease                       Causative organism
1. Ascariasis                           Bacteria
2. Hepatitis                             Virus
3. Tetanus                               Protozoa
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only
Ans : (B)

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part I

Engineering Services Examination 2014 General Ability Test (GAT) (Solved) Part I

Q 1. A dispute arising out of the election of the President of India is referred to the :
(A) Election Commission
(B) Supreme Court of India
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Law Commission
Ans : (B)

Q 2. In the parliamentary form of governance, the executive is :
(A) Independent of the legislature
(B) Resposible to the legislature
(C) Resposible to the judiciary
(D) Directly responsible to the people
Ans : (B)

Q 3. When Solar radiation impinges on a snow surface, then :
(A) Most of the radiation is absorbed and a little portion is reflected
(B) Transmitted through snow and into ground
(C) Most of the radiation is reflected and a little portion is absorbed
(D) Evenly absorbed and reflected
Ans : (A)

Q 4. Which of the following countries has Black Sea on the one side and Mediterranean Sea on the other side ?
(A) Turkey
(B) Iran
(C) Greece
(D) Azerbaijan
Ans : (A)

Q 5. Concept of "Zero Hour" in Indian Parliamentary Process means :
(A) Intervening time between two different items on the agenda
(B) Time between the Question Hour and the next item on the agenda
(C) Time immediately after the question hour which is extended for more number of question – answer sessions at the discretion of the speaker
(D) None of the above statements is correct in this context
Ans : (B)

Q 6. Among the following states, which one is most urbanized ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (D) [According to 20011 Census]

Q 7. Which of the following statements is / are correct
1.District Collector directs and supervises the revenue department of the district
2.District Superintendent of Police grants licenses for arms and explosives in the district
Which of above is correct
(A) 1 only
(B) 2only
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Neither 1 Nor 2
Ans : (A) [Arms licenses granted by DM or CP]

Q 8. "International Development Association" is a/an
(A) Voluntary association of developing countries
(B) Affiliate of world bank
(C) Federation of international lending agencies
(D) Organization of donor countries of European Union
Ans : (B)

Q 9. The only state having common border with Sikkim is
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (D)

Q 10. Which one among the following is the most widespread type of forest in India ?
(A) Tropical wet evergreen
(B) Thorn-scrub
(C) Mangrove
(D) Tropical dry deciduous
Ans : (D)

Q 11. TheParliament of India consist of :
(A) The President, the Lok sabha and the Rajya sabha
(B) The President, the Vice President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
(D) The Union Cabinet, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya sabha
Ans : (A)

Q 12. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for :
(A) Dyarchy in the province and dyarchy at the centre
(B) Autonomy to the provinces and dyarchy at the centre
(C) Abolition of the system of dyarchy
(D) Autonomy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
Ans : (B)

Q 13. Biological Oxygen demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for :
(A) Measuring Oxygen levels in blood
(B) Computing Oxygen levels in forest ecosystem
(C) Pollution assay in aquatic systems
(D) Assessing Oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Ans : (C)

Q 14. The National Development Council is Presided over by the
(A) Union Finance Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
(D) Union Home Minister
Ans : (B)

Q 15. Which one of the following is an appropriate description of mangrove plants ?
(A) Large wood-yielding trees of the tropical forests
(B) Plants in marshy areas with breathing roots
(C) Succulent plants that can thrive in arid/desert areas
(D) Vast grassland areas interspersed with deciduous trees and thorny bushes
Ans : (B)

Q 16. What are the Eka, Cray XT5, Nebulae and SAGA-220 ?
(A) Bird flu causing viral strains
(B) Computer applications
(C) Supercomputers
(D) Unmanned aircraft for espionage
Ans : (C) [ SAGA-220 is built by ISRO ]

Q 17. Which one of the following is the fundamental characteristics of ultimate stage of Communism ?
(A) Cultural revolution
(B) Dictatorship of proletariat
(C) Formation of a world state
(D) Withering away of the state
Ans : (C)

Q 18. Which of the following bodies is/are presided over by a non-member ?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(D) Vidhan Rights and fundamental Duties
Ans : (B)

Q 19. According to the Constitution of India which of the following is/are guidelines to the Government of India for framing laws and policies ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principle of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Ans : (C)

Q 20. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time
(B) The judges of the High Court of the states in India are appointed by the Governor of the state just as the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president
(C) No procedure has been laid down in the constitution of India for the removal of a governor from his post
(D) In case of a Union Territory having a legislative set up , the Chief Minister is appointed by Lt. Governor
Ans : (C)